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Next: Applications Up: Two Theorems by Helmholtz Previous: Introduction

The First Theorem

Actually, the Helmholtz theorem1 proves a slightly different thing, from which the statement above follows immediately: a vector field $\vec{V}$ which vanishes at the boundaries can be written as the sum of two terms, one of which is irrotational and the other, solenoidal (that is, divergenceless)[2]. Consider the following well-known identity for an arbitrary vector field $\vec{Z}(\vec{r})$ :
\begin{displaymath}
-\vec{\nabla}^2\vec{Z} = - \vec{\nabla}(\vec{\nabla}.\vec{Z})
+ \vec{\nabla}\times\vec{\nabla}\times\vec{Z}
\end{displaymath} (1)

If we now take our vector field to be
\begin{displaymath}
\vec{V}=-\vec{\nabla}^2\vec{Z}
\end{displaymath} (2)

then it follows that
\begin{displaymath}
\vec{V}=-\vec{\nabla}U + \vec{\nabla}\times \vec{W}
\end{displaymath} (3)

with
\begin{displaymath}
U=\vec{\nabla}.\vec{Z}
\end{displaymath} (4)

and
\begin{displaymath}
\vec{W}=\vec{\nabla}\times \vec{Z}
\end{displaymath} (5)

Eq.(3) is Helmholtz's theorem, as $\vec{\nabla}U$ is irrotational and $\vec{\nabla}\times \vec{W}$ is solenoidal. But, is it general? It assumes that our vector field can be written as the Laplacian of some other one...
This constitutes, however, no problem if $\vec{V}$ vanishes at infinity fast enough, for, then, the equation
\begin{displaymath}
\vec{\nabla}^2\vec{Z}=-\vec{V} \;,
\end{displaymath} (6)

which is Poisson's equation, has always the solution
\begin{displaymath}
\vec{Z}(\vec{r})= \frac{1}{4\pi}\int d^3\vec{r'}\frac{\vec{V}(\vec{r'})}
{\vert\vec{r}-\vec{r'}\vert}\;.
\end{displaymath} (7)

It is now a simple matter to prove, from Eq.(3), that $\vec{V}$ is determined from its $div$ and $curl$. Taking, in fact, the divergence of Eq.(3), we have:
\begin{displaymath}
div \vec{V} = -\vec{\nabla}^2 U
\end{displaymath} (8)

which is, again, Poisson's equation, and, so, determines $U$ as
\begin{displaymath}
U(\vec{r}) = \frac{1}{4\pi}\int
d^3\vec{r'}\frac{\vec{\nabla}'.\vec{V}(\vec{r'})}
{\vert\vec{r}-\vec{r'}\vert}
\end{displaymath} (9)

Take now the $curl$ of Eq.(3). We have
$\displaystyle \vec{\nabla}\times\vec{V}$ $\textstyle =$ $\displaystyle \vec{\nabla}\times\vec{\nabla}\times\vec{W}$  
  $\textstyle =$ $\displaystyle \vec{\nabla}(\vec{\nabla}.\vec{W}) - \vec{\nabla}^2\vec{W}$ (10)

Now, $\vec{\nabla}.\vec{W}=0$, as $\vec{W}=\vec{\nabla}\times\vec{Z}$, so another Poisson equation determines $\vec{W}$. Using $U$ and $\vec{W}$ so determined in Eq.(3) proves our contention.
next up previous
Next: Applications Up: Two Theorems by Helmholtz Previous: Introduction
Henrique Fleming 2002-04-15